Question No. 1

Which two statements are true regarding the relationship between pricing strategies and pricing segments?

• A. You can use different pricing strategies for the same pricing segment.
• B. Every pricing segment can have a different pricing strategy.
• C. Each customer should have a different pricing segment and, therefore, a different pricing strategy.
• D. You can only use one pricing strategy for all pricing segments.
• E. Pricing strategies and pricing segments are not related.

Question No. 2

Your customer wants to have a price list that determines pricing when transferring between two internal organizations.

Which two algorithms supports this policy?

• A. Process Transfers Pricing Strategy
• B. Price Sales Transitions
• C. Get Sales Pricing Strategy
• D. Price Material Transfers

Question No. 3

Which component must a customer use to define adjustments?

• A. Piking Strategy
• B. Pricing Profile
• C. Surcharge Lists
• D. Shipping Charge Lists
• D. Discount Lists

Question No. 4

Your customer wants to change costs based on the quality of products ordered.

What must be configured to achieve this requirement?

• A. Shipping Charge Adjustment
• B. Shipping Tier Adjustment
• C. Cost List Adjustment
• D. Firelight List Adjustment
• E. Quality Based Shipping Charges

Question No. 5

You are explaining Pricing Segments to a client.

Which three statements describe the true purposes of a pricing segment that you could share with your client?

• A. categorize set of customers
• B. understand customer business motivations
• C. achieve profitability goals
• D. serve as a repository for Price Lists
• E. offer custom pricing solution to customer
• F. define rules that assign a pricing segment to a pricing strategy

Question No. 1

You are currently implementing Oracle Cloud for the Singapore entity of your Multinational customer. Their head office is located in Japan. Apart from Singapore, their other entities are using a legacy system.

Their requirement is to implement Oracle Cloud in such a way that at the end of the financial year, all their financial reporting should be in Japanese Yen.

How will you fulfill the above requirement?

• A. Define two ledgers one in SGD (Singapore Dollars) and one in Japanese Yen and transfer data of all the subledgers in these two primary ledgers.
• B. Define one primary ledger with Japanese Yen currency so that all the subledger data gets converted to Japanese Yen automatically.
• C. This requirement cannot be fulfilled.
• D. Define one primary ledger with SGD (Singapore Dollars) as primary currency and use the reporting currency functionality to provide the necessary data in Japanese Yen currency.

Question No. 2

Your client has just set up their chart of accounts. They are now designing the organization hierarchy in the system.

Which three structures should the customer use to do this?

• A. Divisions, Business Units, and Departments
• B. Cost type, Default Cost Structure, and Item Organization
• C. Warehouse, Subinventory, and Locators
• D. Cost Centers, Organizations, and Locations

Question No. 3

In Supply Chain Orchestration, Automated Change Management performs which two functions?

• A. changing the ship method on a sales order
• B. change to need by dates of a purchase order
• C. splitting of a sales order
• D. change to item attributes
• E. changing the supplier on a purchase order

Question No. 4

Your client has not been managing Supply Request Exceptions on a regular basis.

What issue does this cause?

• A. After the errors reach a set threshold in profile options, no new supply requests can be created
• B. If exceptions are not resolved within a set threshold days, it alerts the manager and continues to escalate up the Supply Request Exception Chain.
• C. Supply orders are not created for these exceptions, thus causing disruptions in the Supply Chain.
• D. No issues would be caused; these are just warnings.
• E. The request will be denied automatically if not resolved within two days.

Question No. 5

Which three statements are true regarding PAR Location Management?

• A. Organizations can perform locator-level stock counting for both quantity and non-quantity tracked subinventories.
• B. If the stock level falls below the target on-hand quantity for the locator, inventory generates the appropriate replenishment document based on the item sourcing for the subinventory.
• C. A receipt is required on interorganization expense destination transfer orders between the from and to organizations
• D. PAR location management replenishment are calculated at the organization level or subinventory level.
• E. Periodic Automated Replenishment (PAR) enables facilities that do not store perpetual inventory (such as hospitals) to perform locator-level replenishment.

Question No. 1

You get complaints from users of several different applications that performance has degraded over time.

These applications run in this configuration:

There are three different databases and database instances.

Two of the poorly performing applications run in the same Pluggable Database (PDB) in an Oracle 12c multitenant Container Database (CDB) with four PDBs.

One of the poorly performing applications runs in a different PDB in the same CDB.

One of the poorly performing applications runs in an Oracle 12c non-CDB, which also hosts other applications.

You have the Oracle Resource Manager configured for the CDB, all PDBs, and the non-CDB.

Each application has a separate consumer group associated with the sessions that are running that application.

A check of wait events for the sessions belonging to these applications shows that the sessions are waiting longer and that there are more sessions from other applications in the same database instance.

You want to avoid scaling up your Database Deployment in Oracle Cloud.

Which three should you check and possibly reconfigure to avoid the need to scale up the Database Deployment?

• A. Check the shares allocated only to the consumer group in the non-CDB that is used by the poorly performing application.
• B. Check the shares allocated to all consumer groups in the non-CDB.
• C. Check the CDB plan to configure the shares allocated to all PDBs, including the PDB that contains the two poorly performing applications.
• D. Check the PDB plan for the PDB that is hosting the two poorly performing applications.
• E. Check the CDB plan only to configure the shares allocated to the PDB that contains the two poorly performing applications.
• F. Check the PDB plan for all the PDBs in the CDB, including the PDB that is hosting the two poorly performing applications.

Question No. 2

You are monitoring resource usage on your Database Cloud Service.

What two resource usage metrics can you find on the Instance Overview page?

• A. number of days left on your subscription
• B. number of processes allocated
• C. I/O from reads and writes
• D. memory
• E. storage
• F. number of current users

Question No. 3

You are on the Database Cloud Service Instance View page.

Which three consoles can you open?

• A. OPC Console
• B. GlassFish Administration Console
• C. Storage Container Console
• D. Application Express Console
• E. User Console
• F. Database Express Manager Console

Question No. 4

Which command would you execute to perform DBaaS recovery with the latest backup?

• A. dbaascli rec --args --latest
• B. dbaascli orec --args -latest
• C. dbaascli rec --args -last
• D. dbaascli orec --args -last

Question No. 5

What is the location of the associated database files of a Database Deployment?

• A. The installer sets the database file locations during installation by configuring the data file storage options.
• B. The Database Deployment data files are stored at:/u01: Oracle product software; the entire bits Compute Cloud storage volume/u02: Oracle Database data storage; the entire data Compute Cloud storage volume/u03: Database backup storage; the entire fra Compute Cloud storage volume/u04: Database redo logs; the entire redo Compute Cloud storage volume
• C. All database instance files on the Database Deployment are stored at /u01/app/oracle/oradata.
• D. The database file locations are read from utldbfiles.ora and users can update this file to set their own locations.

Question No. 1

Can you change the column text of primary and secondary rates on the Benefit self-service page?

• A. No, a change option is not available in the Configure Grouping Display task.
• B. Yes, a change option is available in the Enrollment Configuration task.
• C. Yes, a change option is available in the Configure Grouping Display task.
• D. No, a change option is available in the Configure Grouping Display task, but it doesn't allow a text change.

Question No. 2

A benefits administrator goes to the Enrollment task and finds the following under, the life event summary:

1. Address Change life event status: Detected

2. New Hire life event: Manual

What does this status signify?

• A. A New Hire life event was manually selected.
• B. A New Hire life event was manually selected.
• C. A New Hire life event was manually selected, or the Configure the Timeliness Evaluation setting of a particular life event set the An Address Change event was triggered for the person and participation evaluate processing has not yet evaluated it.
• D. A New Hire life event was manually selected.

Question No. 3

Your customer wants to create a new XX BeWell Medical Plan for the upcoming plan year 2018. What two steps must you perform as an administrator to stop existing participant enrollments and prevent new enrollments?

• A. Edit the new plan with session effective date as January l of the upcoming plan year 7018, and the status as Pending.
• B. Create the new plan with session effective date as January 1 of the current year 2017. and the status as Active,
• C. Edit the new plan with session effective date as January 1 of the upcoming plan year 2018, and the status as Active.
• D. Edit the new plan with session effective date as January of the current plan year 2017, and the status as Active.
• E. Create the new plan with session effective date as January 1 of the current year 2017, and the status as Pending.

Question No. 4

A benefits administrator processed an enrollment for one employee, and manually added the life event "XYZ" as of August 1, 2016. Since there were two more life events in the detected phase as of August 15, 2016, the benefits administrator clicked "Collapse Life Event". Upon processing the life event tab, the benefits administrator received an error saying two or more life events were in the detected phase.

Why did the collapsing rule fail?

• A. The number of proximity days was specified as 20.
• B. The number of proximity days was specified as 0.
• C. The life event had expired.
• D. The number of proximity days was specified as 15.

Question No. 5

An employee logs in from employee self-service and navigates to the benefits section. However, the employee is unable to find the desired plan in the benefits section. Which two are possible reasons the plan does not appear:

• A. No life event is detected.
• B. No option is available for the plan for enrollment.
• C. No unrestricted event is available for the employee.
• D. The employee is not eligible for the enrollment.

Question No. 1

An operator able to perform bitwise shifts is coded as (select two answers)

• A. - -
• B. ++
• C. <<
• D. >>

Question No. 2

When the following program "question.py" is executed with Python what is the output?

• A. 10
• B. 5
• C. FunctionOverride: function i assigned not called
• D. Function i at 0xb7489764>

Question No. 3

What is the output of the Is(TCP) function?

• A. It lists all of the TCP port numbers in a TCP stream
• B. It lists all of the packets that have a TCP layer
• C. It lists the contents of the TCP layer
• D. It lists all of the fields associated with the TCP layer

Question No. 4

Which of the following would produce this list?

[65, 66, 67, 68]

• A. range(l,4) + 64
• B. for x(4)+64
• C. map(ord, "ABCD")
• D. range(4)+ 65

Question No. 5

What is the output of the following line of code typed into a Python interactive session?

• A. 0b10101
• B. 18
• C. 0b10010
• D. 0b101101

Question No. 1

Which of the following protocols support the 2.4 GHz band (Select 3 Answers)?

• A. 802.11a
• B. 802.11b
• C. 802.11g
• D. 802.11n

Question No. 2

The CAPWAP protocol is a WLAN standard proposed by the IEEE standards organization in April 2009 for communication between AC and thin APs.

• A. True
• B. False

Question No. 3

Which of the following protocols are IEEE 802.11 standards Select 3 Answers)?

• A. 802.11a/b/g/n
• B. 802.11i
• C. 802.1X
• D. 802.11s

Question No. 4

Which of the following standards is WLAN (Select 2 Answers)?

• A. 802.11a/b/g/n
• B. WPA
• C. WPA2
• D. 802.11i

Question No. 5

Which of the following standards organizations is implementing WLAN technology interoperability for WLAN device authentication?

• A. WiFi Alliance
• B. IEEE
• C. IETF
• D. FCC

Question No. 1

The SNCP switching speed can be improved if you classify the SNCP services that have the same source, sink, or route into groups.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE

Question No. 2

Which of the following are the service board types of MSTP devices? (Multiple Choice)

• A. Interface board
• B. Service processing board
• C. Service processing board with interfaces
• D. Auxiliary board

Question No. 3

The device IP addresses of the gateway NE and non-gateway NEs must be set in the same network segment.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE

Question No. 4

Which of the following are the electrical-layer overheads of OTN? (Multiple Choice)

• A. OPUk
• B. ODUk
• C. OCh
• D. OTUk

Question No. 5

When the LCAS function is used/ which of the following overhead bytes are used to transmit control information? (Multiple Choice)

• A. M1
• B. H4
• C. K2
• D. K4

Question No. 1

An architect is planning an HPE Integrity Superdome X solution with the following nPartitions:

nPar 1= Slots 1, 3, and 5

nPar 2 = Slots 2, 4, and 6

The Superdome X solution must connect to a Fibre Channel SAN solution, which provides boot disks for the Superdome X solution.

The architect has selected a Flexible LOM adapter for each blade.

What is a valid plan for additional adapters?

• A. one 2-port FC HBA for slot 1
• B. one 2-port FC HBA each for slot 1, slot 3, and slot 5
• C. one 2-port FC HBA each for slot 1 and slot 2
• D. one 2-port FC HBA each for slot 2, slot 4, and slot 6

Question No. 2

A customer needs a hosted physical desktop solution. Users will run typical office applications with limited use of some media-rich applications such as Adobe Photoshop. The customer needs the densest and most cost-effective solution that can support such users.

Which HPE Moonshot cartridge should the architect recommend?

• A. HPE m710
• B. HPE m400
• C. HPE m700
• D. HPE m710p

Question No. 3

An architect is proposing an HPE Moonshot System, including m710 cartridges, an iLO Chassis Manager, switch, and uplink modules. The customer needs IT staff to be able to access cartridges over a Remote console.

What should the architect explain to the customer?

• A. IT staff can open a Remote Console to any cartridge linked to an mRCA through the iLO CM.
• B. Remote Console access is only supported when a cartridge is part of an HPE Helion CloudSystem 9.x solution.
• C. Remote Console access is not supported for cartridges; IT staff should use local consoles instead.
• D. IT staff can open a Remote Console to any cartridge through the iLO CM.

Question No. 4

An architect is writing a response to a Request for Proposal (RFP). The customer has requested financial information on the monetary amount by which assets are valued in business records.

Which value does the architect need to consider?

• A. total cost of acquisition (TCA)
• B. net investment value (NIV)
• C. net book value (NBV)
• D. fair market value (FMV)

Question No. 5

A customer is deploying HPE Apollo Systems, which the customer hopes will help the organization achieve its goals for efficient energy operations. In assessing the customer maturity, the architect finds that IT staff has limited insight into how efficiently servers are operating and limited ability to enforce energy efficiency policies.

Which solution should the architect recommend to help solve these issues?

• A. HPE Advanced Power Manager
• B. HPE OneView 2.x
• C. HPE Power Advisor
• D. HPE Insight Remote Support

Question No. 1

A network administrator implements a SIP-based IP telephone solution. The objective is to ensure that APs use 100% of their airtime for network access whenever a voice call is taking place, to minimize communication delays. The network administrator also wants to ensure that a log entry is generated when voice calls occur.

Which setup accomplishes these tasks?

• A. ip access-list session voice
• B. ip access-list session voice
• C. ip access-list session voice
• D. ip access-list session voice

Question No. 2

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit1

Exhibit2

A network administrator integrates a current Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) deployment with a RADIUS infrastructure. After using the RADIUS server to authenticate a wireless user, the network administrator realizes that the client machine is not falling into the it_department role, as shown in the exhibits.

Which configuration is required to map the users into the proper role, based on standard attributes returned by the RADIUS server in the Access Accept message?

• A. aaa server-group Corp-Network
• B. aaa server-group GROUP-RADIUS
• C. aaa server-group Corp-employee
• D. aaa server-group Corp-employee

Question No. 3

A point venture between two companies results in a fully functional WLAN Aruba solution. The network administrator uses the following script to integrate the WLAN solution with two radius servers, radius1 and radius2.

While all users authenticate with username@doaminname.com type of credentials, radius1 has user accounts without the domain name portion.

Which additional configuration is required to authenticate corp1.com users with radius1 and corp2 users with radius2?

• A. aaa authentication-server radius radius1
• B. aaa server-group-corp
• C. aaa authentication-server tadius radius1
• D. aaa authentication-server radius radius1

Question No. 4

A bank deploys an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-Mobility Controller (MC) solution to provide wireless access for users that run different applications on their laptops, including SIP-based IP telephony. When users only run the IP telephony software, call quality is high. However, if users also run email, web, or mission critical applications, then voice quality drops.

Which feature would help improve the quality of voice calls over the air when users run different applications?

• A. DSCP for IPv4 traffic
• B. WiFi Multi Media
• C. Type of Service
• D. High/Low Queue

Question No. 5

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys DSCP based prioritization in the entire wired network to improve voice quality for a SIP-based IP telephony system used by the company. However, users report that calls they make from the WLAN have poor audio quality, while desktop phones do not experience the same problem. The network administrator makes a test call and looks in the datapath session table.

Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what is one area that the network administrator should focus on?

• A. wireless network congestion
• B. WMM support on the WLAN
• C. UCC based DSCP correction
• D. wired network congestion

Question No. 1

A small company, with limited resources, has started to use the Marketing Cloud. They have a single master data extension for all of their subscribers. When a subscriber opts in to receive communications, they will receive a monthly newsletter, weekly promotions, and a birthday email.

What is the optimal way to manage unsubscribes by communication type?

• A. Create a Boolean field for each communication type in the data extension and update the Profile Center.
• B. Create suppression lists for each communication type, and associate the suppression list on the send definition.
• C. Create separate data extensions for each communication type and customize the subscription page.
• D. Create publication lists for each communication type, and associate the publication list on the send definition.

Question No. 2

What tool is recommended to render personalization strings, AMPscript, and dynamic content in an email message before sending it to a subscriber?

• A. List Detective
• B. Preview and test
• C. Send Flow
• D. Test Send

Question No. 3

A marketer is completing a Send Preview based on a pre-deployment checklist. What task is validated during the Send Preview?

• A. Confirm that each content area specified in the dynamic content rules exists.
• B. Identify phrases like "click here" or "Free!" that could be marked as spam.
• C. Ensure subscriber status at the time of send is Subscribed or Bounced.
• D. Ensure subscribers have not unsubscribed or are undeliverable.

Question No. 4

A company has one million subscribers. The company has a Master data extension that contains information about its subscribers, such as Email Address, Physical Mailing Address, Phone Number, and Loyalty information. There are 40 fields in the data extension. The data is used for multiple daily email campaigns.

How should the data be updated?

• A. A scheduled automation to import a file containing all of their subscribers.
• B. A scheduled automation to occur every 15 minutes to ensure the data is current.
• C. A file drop automation to execute an import every time a record is updated or added.
• D. A scheduled automation to import a nightly file of updated or changed records.

Question No. 5

Northern Trail Outfitters wants to use something other than an email address to identify subscribers.

What functionality can be used to accommodate this?

• A. Subscriber Key
• B. Subscriber Attributes
• C. System Preferences
• D. Primary Key

Question No. 1

Universal containers(UC) leverages the standard opportunity and opportunity product objects to manage their orders in Salesforce. When a deal is closed, all opportunity information, including products and billing contacts, must be send to their ERP application for order fulfillment. As UC has an "express shipping" guarantee, leadership would like order information sent to ERP as quickly as possible after the deal is closed? How should an Architect fulfill this requirement?

• A. Write a nightly batch job to send customer information to ERP.
• B. Write a visualforce page to send order information to ERP.
• C. Write an opportunity trigger to send order information to ERP.
• D. Write an outbound message to send order information to ERP.

Question No. 2

Universal containers decided to use Salesforce sales cloud for their sales processes won Opportunities must be sent to external ERP system for order fulfillment. All the line items must also be sent along with Opportunities. The ERP system supports only SOAP- based messages for receiving orders. What limitation of outbound messages might present a problem in this scenario?

• A. Outbound messaging does not support multiple objects
• B. Outbound messaging does not support SOAP
• C. Outbound messaging cannot be made secure
• D. Outbound messaging does not offer any reliability.

Question No. 3

Universal containers has a simple co -premise web app that is unauthenticated. What capability should an integration Architect recommend to make the app accessible from within Salesforce?

• A. Apex callout
• B. Visualforce
• C. Custom Web tab
• D. Lightning connect

Question No. 4

Universal containers are building an integration between Salesforce and their data warehouse. The architect has the following requirements:

1. Salesforce users need the ability to CRUD (create,read,update and delete) data from their data warehouse without leaving the Salesforce user interface

2.The integration to the data warehouse should maintain the same look and feel as the existing Salesforce user interface

3.The use of custom development Should be minimized

Which two solutions should the architect consider? Choose two options

• A. Utilizelightning connect with custom ApexAdapter to provided CRUD access to the data warehouse
• B. Utilize a canvas application to render the data warehouse data from within Salesforce
• C. Utilize a visual force page from 3rd party JavaScript library that will provide CRUD capabilities to the data warehouse.
• D. Utilize a 3rd party tool from the App-Exchange that will provide CRUD capabilities between the data warehouse and salesforce

Question No. 5

Universal Containers has decided that they will be using the bulk API to migrate the existing data into Salesforce as they will be importing a total of 80 million records. While planning for the data migration, what techniques should the Architect recommend to make sure the load go according to schedule? Choose 2 answers

• A. Pre-process data that the triggers and workflows can be deactivated.
• B. Perform a test load using a full Sandbox prior to the Production load.
• C. Perform loads over a weekend server resource availability.
• D. Leverage several workstations, loading different objects simultaneously.

Question No. 1

All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT

• A. Weight training.
• B. Walking.
• C. Bicycling.
• D. Stair climbing.

Question No. 2

One important aspect of staff competency is ensuring that staff members are well trained

and kept up to date. Which of the following organizations has recently launched the

Registry for Clinical Exercise Physiologists?

• A. AACVPR.
• B. American College of Physicians.
• C. American Heart Association.
• D. ACSM.

Question No. 3

Which of the following elements is NOT part of an emergency plan for a clinical exercise

program?

• A. Annual practice sessions involving all staff.
• B. Emergency plan that constantly refers to national established guidelines (e.g., ACLS)
• C. Emergency drills carried out on a regular basis and documented.
• D. Scenarios developed to increase the applicability of the emergency plan practice

Question No. 4

Which of the following statements regarding exercise for the elderly is FALSE?

• A. A decrease in maximal HR is responsible for reductions in the maximal oxygen
• B. A loss of fat-free mass is responsible for the decrease in muscular strength as we age.
• C. The ACSM recommends a cardiorespiratory training intensity of 50% to 70% of HRR
• D. Resistance exercise training is not recommended for older adults.

Question No. 5

The process of risk stratification often is used for the criteria for clinical exercise

rehabilitation program admission. Which of the following statements about risk

stratification is NOT correct?

• A. Risk stratification can be modeled after the criteria published by the AACVPR.
• B. Risk stratification can be useful for participant entry criteria, exercise testing
• C. Risk stratification can be tied to insurance reimbursement.
• D. Risk stratification often is used to determine the intensity of prescribed exercise.

Question No. 1

The message "Hard Disk Error" is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. What does this indicate?

• A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
• B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
• C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
• D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process

Question No. 2

You are trying to make a hard link to an ordinary file but ln returns an error. Which of the following could cause this?

• A. The source file is hidden.
• B. The source file is read-only.
• C. The source file is a shell script.
• D. You do not own the source file.
• E. The source and the target are on different filesystems.

Question No. 3

Which of the following commands can be used to perform a full text search on all available packages on a Debian system?

• A. apt
• B. apt-cache
• C. apt-get
• D. apt-search
• E. dpkg

Question No. 4

Which of the following apt-get commands will install the newest versions of all currently installed packages without removing any packages or installing new packages that are not already installed?

• A. auto-update
• B. upgrade
• C. dist-upgrade
• D. install
• E. update

Question No. 5

Which of the following explanations are valid reasons to run a command in the background of your shell?

• A. The command does not need to execute immediately.
• B. The command has to run immediately but the user needs to log out.
• C. The system is being shut down and the command needs to restart execution immediately after the reboot.
• D. The command can run at a lower priority than normal commands run on the command line.

Question No. 1

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

• A. cphaprob interface
• B. cphaprob --I interface
• C. cphaprob --a if
• D. cphaprob stat

Question No. 2

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

• A. Route-based VPN
• B. IPS
• C. IPv6
• D. Overlapping NAT

Question No. 3

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

• A. TCP port 19009
• B. TCP Port 18190
• C. TCP Port 18191
• D. TCP Port 18209

Question No. 4

If an administrator wants to add manual NAT for addresses now owned by the Check Point firewall, what else is necessary to be completed for it to function properly?

• A. Nothing - the proxy ARP is automatically handled in the R80 version
• B. Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called /etc/conf/local.arp
• C. Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $FWDIR/conf/local.arp
• D. Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $CPDIR/conf/local.arp

Question No. 5

When using CPSTAT, what is the default port used by the AMON server?

• A. 18191
• B. 18192
• C. 18194
• D. 18190

Question No. 1

Your project passed the Explore Quality gate and enters the Realize phase. When do you request the Production system?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

• A. Before you trigger the first transport in the Quality system.
• B. After the Quality system is activated.
• C. After the mandatory configurations are confirmed.
• D. After the initial Quality system is provisioned.

Question No. 2

What is the purpose of the Starter system in the SAP S/4HANA Cloud implementation project?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

• A. To demonstrate the customer's personalized solution, including process flows, the organizational '---' structure and authorizations
• B. To conduct a blueprint workshop to identify all customer requirements for a completely customized
• C. To configure the customer's personalized solution for demonstration and testing during the realize U phase
• D. To demonstrate SAP Best Practices processes in a preconfigured system and identify customer '---' personalization requirements during Fit-to-Standard workshop

Question No. 3

What do you user to integrate SAP S/4HANA Cloud with non-SAP cloud software?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

• A. SAP Process Orchestration
• B. SAP Cloud Platform Integration
• C. Whitelisted SAP S/4HANA Cloud APIs
• D. SAP Cloud Platform Connector

Question No. 4

Which tools help you accelerate the Fit-to-Standard Processes?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

• A. Content Lifecycle Management
• B. Starter system
• C. Test scripts
• D. Business process flows
• E. Self-services configuration Ul

Question No. 5

Which activities are performed by the SAP Global Service Center?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

• A. Legacy data migration
• B. SAP Best Practices model company activation
• C. Expert configuration
• D. User training content development

Question No. 1

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves making business use case decisions for the cloud service offering portfolio?

• A. Service Termination
• B. Service Planning
• C. Service Creation
• D. Service Operation

Question No. 2

Which software-defined storage controller function gathers data about the components and brings them under its control and management?

• A. Storage provisioning
• B. Storage discovery
• C. Resource abstraction and pooling
• D. Storage component management

Question No. 3

Refer to the exhibit, which represents a consumer environment consisting of multiple VMs running Windows operating systems (OSs).

For compliance reasons, the cloud service provider maintains version control over the OS provided to the consumer. The service provider also ensures that the configurations of the VMs comply with the configuration policy for the OS version. The configuration policy includes the two conditions shown in the exhibit. A monitoring tool verifies VM configurations against the configuration policy and provides the compliance results shown.

What is the percentage of compliance non-adherence?

• A. 30.12%
• B. 33.34%
• C. 58.33%
• D. 66.67%

Question No. 4

What mechanism does RSA SecurID use?

• A. Single sign-on authentication
• B. Policy-based authorization
• C. Multi-factor authentication
• D. Role-based authorization

Question No. 5

What is the function of a monitoring and alerting tool?

• A. Focus on examining the usage of resources by customers and service providers and provide notification to optimize and manage workloads
• B. Control charges for cloud usage by optimizing cloud resource utilization
• C. Automate tasks and IT processes and manage the IT environment
• D. Enable people to work closely together on a common project, in real time, by making communication among them easier