Question No. 1

Why does the Write Splitter need to be installed on ESXi servers containing Dell EMC RecoverPoint for VMs vRPAs and Production VMs?

• A. All ESXi servers, managed by the vCenter Server with the RecoverPoint for VMs Plug-in, contain the Write Splitter
• B. Writes to the Production VMs must be copied and sent to the assigned vRPA
• C. vRPAs use the Write Splitter to communicate with the vCenter Server Plug-in
• D. Writes to the Production VMs must be copied and sent to the Production Journal

Question No. 2

Which factor determines the size of the Journals needed for each Dell EMC RecoverPoint for VMs Consistency Group?

• A. It failover is required for each copy in the Consistency Group
• B. How far back in time Production can be recovered
• C. Size of each VMDK in the Consistency Group's Replication set
• D. If synchronous replication is being used

Question No. 3

What is the approximate deduplication rate for a Dell EMC Avamar server across all clients?

• A. 60% for file system data and 30% for database data
• B. 70% for file system data and 35% for database data
• C. 80% for file system data and 20% for database data
• D. 90% for file system data and 10% for database data

Question No. 4

In the Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, what is a key benefit of Storage Direct Backup?

• A. 10x faster recovery
• B. 10x faster backup
• C. Backup does not require a Data Domain
• D. Support for a wide range of third-party storage arrays

Question No. 5

Which Microsoft technologies are used to provide database consistent backups for MS SQL with Dell EMC DPS Application Direct?

• A. SSMS and T-SQL
• B. VSS and VDI
• C. VSS and SSMS
• D. VDI and SSMS

Question No. 1

How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups.

• A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query.
• B. By looking into the ARP cache.
• C. There is no dynamic learning process; instead static FDB entries are used.
• D. None of the above.

Question No. 2

Which of the following IP destination addresses can be used for multicast streams?

• A. 10.1.0.0
• B. 226.0.0.1
• C. 192.168.10.0
• D. 172.18.255.255

Question No. 3

Select the correct statements related to IP Multicast?

• A. IP multicast uses unreliable data transfer protocol as UDP
• B. The network must be ''IP multicast enabled''
• C. IP multicast routers must maintain state information of active multicast groups
• D. All of the above

Question No. 4

An IP-only IS-IS router (or "IP-only" router) is defined to be

• A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
• B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
• C. One of the IS-IS router types
• D. All of the above

Question No. 5

IS-IS is an exterior gateway protocol.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE

Question No. 1

While you are monitoring a spool request in AS ABAP, the status is displayed. What does this status mean?

• A. The spool request has NOT yet been processed by the host spool system
• B. The request has been passed to an output device and a final status has NOT been returned.
• C. There is more than one output request and at least two requests have a different status.
• D. The spool request has been processed by the host spool system and is waiting to be archived.

Question No. 1

A retail bank has promoted 2 Blue Prism processes to production

1. Email poller

2 Customer onboarding

3. Direct Debit Cancellations

One instance of the email poller process will run 24/7 feeding work queues for the other two processes.

Three instances of the Customer onboarding process will run between 6am and 11 pm each day on three separate VMs

One instance of the Direct Debit Cancellations process will run between 6am and 4pm each day on the same VM as the Email poller process

What is the maximum number of Blue Prism licenses that will be consumed each day?

• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

Question No. 2

The following Object Design has been created for a mainframe banking application.

Which of the following statements about the Object design above are correct? (select 2 responses)

• A. The Add Note action in the "BankHost - Notepad" business object does not require an input for Type as the process definition document states that Information' will always be selected for this process.
• B. The object design facilitates a scalable design that will reduce the impact of change when the object layer needs altering
• C. The object design should be simplified by storing all BankHost actions in the same object
• D. There is no need for attach actions to be replicated across all the objects.
• E. The design complies with Blue Prism design best practice.

Question No. 3

A proposed Blue Prism solution with the following properties has been created to automate the payment processing:

* There will be one Blue Prism process that will perform the steps described above.

* Where a case is an exception the status will be set in Paytex to "Manual Review" in order that the manual team can pick up the case from Paytex and contact the customer and conclude the case.

* It is anticipated that to meet the SLAs of the expected volumes up to 5 instances of the Blue Prism process will be required to run concurrently.

* A Blue Prism work queue will be used to host the payments. The queue will be configured for only 1 attempt per case and the key will be {region} & {source account number}.

* The process will be started by the scheduler at 06:00 and will stop at 05:50

Which of the following are correct? (select 3 responses).

• A. There is a risk that a payment can be duplicated.
• B. The process should not be designed to use a Blue Prism Work Queue but use Paytex as the work queue.
• C. The process will not scale i.e. you cannot run multiple instances at the same time
• D. The solution exposes sensitive personal information
• E. The process should not be automated as it uses a third party web application.
• F. There is a risk that a payment can be orphaned.

Question No. 4

Consider the following high-level design:

The application concerned is prone to being sluggish or even unresponsive at times. As the solution designer you should anticipate that there will be system exceptions and that after an exception case the application might not be in arNdea1 state. What should you do? (select 3 responses).

• A. Add clean up' logic to get the application in the right position after Apply Queue Item Result.
• B. Kill the application after each case and log back in to ensure the next case starts in the right position.
• C. Instruct the developers to build objects capable of navigating the application back to the home position.
• D. Restart the application if attempts to navigate back to the home position fail
• E. Move Log into Application to be before Work Stepl1 and move Log Out of Application to be after Step3.
• F. Add "clean up' logic to get the application in the right position before Work Stepl1.
• G. Add clean up' logic to get the application in the right position after Work Step3.

Question No. 5

Consider the following high-level design. The solution is intended to read medical data from one application in order to update another An input file is prepared by an overnight batch run for the solution to work through each morning before patients arrive. Usually the input file is fairly small but at certain times each month the file is much larger.

Which of these options should be considered by the process solution designer to guarantee the quality of the end-to-end solution? (select 4 responses)

• A. Once in production the process controller should ensure that the process is only ever run on one Resource PC
• B. The solution should log in to the applications before starting the case working loop
• C. The solution should split the file into pieces to distribute to each Resource PC.
• D. The solution should log out from applications after exiting working loop.
• E. Each Resource PC should be set to take a different row from the others, e, g. RPC-A works rows t, 4, 7, 10 etc., RPC-B works 2, 5. 8 etc and RPC-C works 3, b, 9 etc.
• F. The solution should start by loading the file data into a work queue.
• G. The file should be updated at the start of each case to prevent other RPCs from working it.
• H. Once in production the clinic should wait until the solution has completed before admitting patients
• I. The batch run should create multiple input files so that each Resource PC has its own file to work with
• J. The file should be updated after each case to indicate that the case has been worked.
• K. The solution should use an environment lock to ensure the file can only be accessed by one Resource PC at a time.

Question No. 1

Assume you are managing the system testing execution phase of a project. The system test execution period for that project is scheduled for eighteen weeks and the release date is scheduled at the end of system testing.

During the sixth week of system test execution, at the staff meeting, the project manager informs you that the project deadlines are changed and the release date that is only three weeks ahead. This new release will not allow the completion of the system tests. Suppose also that you have followed a risk-driven test approach for this project. Which of the following statements represents the worst way to lead your test team in the next three weeks?

K2 1 credit

• A. Neglect your management activities and work side-by-side with your test team executing tests
• B. Considering the executed tests, you should reduce the test coverage back on the risk analysis and adjust downward the priority of the associated risk items
• C. Convince all the people of your test team that each of them is an important and needed member, and that their contribution is fundamental to the success of the team
• D. Favor and encourage a proactive attitude where people ask for new tasks as soon as they finish their current tasks

Question No. 2

Which of the following statements about the TMMi test process improvement model is true? K2 1 credit

• A. In TMMi all the process areas at lower levels must be 75% complete by achieving specific and generic goals in order to claim the higher level
• B. TMMi provides an approach for test process improvement such as the IDEAL (Initiating, Diagnosing, Establishing, Acting and Learning) model
• C. TMMi has a staged architecture for process improvement with seven maturity levels
• D. At TMMi level 1 testing is chaotic without a defined process, and it is often seen as the same as debugging

Question No. 3

A chart showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution during system testing is also available. The chart shows that the daily closure period is consistently and significantly above the rolling closure period for a long period of the system testing phase. Almost all defects found during system testing have been related to the system as a whole, not related to single units or integrations issues. Almost all quality risks have been addressed during the unit and integration testing phase and no residual quality risks were present in the integrated system. This has been confirmed by exploratory testing sessions performed during system testing, targeted at finding defects in these quality risk areas. Based on the given information only, which one of the following areas would you expect to be considered more in the retrospective meeting in order to be improved?

K3 3 credits

• A. The requirements review
• B. The defect management process
• C. The quality risk analysis process
• D. The system design and architecture design reviews

Question No. 4

Assume you are a Test Manager involved in system testing of a CRM application for a Pay-TV company. Currently the application is able to support a proper number of users assuring the required responsiveness. Since the business is expected to grow, you have been asked to evaluate the ability of the application to grow to support more users while maintaining the same responsiveness.

Which of the following tools would you expect to be the most useful at performing this evaluation? K2 1 credit

• A. Coverage tools
• B. Test management tools
• C. Static analysis tools
• D. Performance tools

Question No. 5

After a selection process you have selected a test management tool that is going be introduced in your organization and used by your test team in a pilot project.

You have already identified the member of your test team who will be the administrator of the tool, since he/she has a significant experience with the administration of test management tools and so he/she is able to make effective and efficient up-front decisions about "how" the tool will be used.

You have also developed a training plan for the other members of your test team.

In collaboration with the administrator of the tool you have also devised standard ways of managing, storing and maintaining the tool and its assets including backup/restore procedures.

You have also analyzed standard formats supported by the tool (CSV, XLS, XML, etc.) to export, import and archive all the information managed by the tool itself (requirements, test case specifications, test plans etc.) for compliance with the most important test management tools, in order to minimize the impacts of migrating this information to a new tool that could replace the existing one in the future.

Which of the following phases in the lifecycle of the new tool has NOT been adequately considered in this description?

K2 1 credit

• A. Acquisition
• B. Support and maintenance
• C. Evolution
• D. Retirement

Question No. 1

A customer is comparing a Power Systems solution with an x86 solution for big data analytics.

Which no-charge IBM analysis is available to justify the value of IBM Power Servers compared to x86 solutions?

• A. IT Economics Study (Eagle Study)
• B. Performance Navigator
• C. System Planning Tool
• D. Workload Estimator

Question No. 2

A customer is considering a purchase of a Power System E950. One PCIe Gen3 I/O expansion drawer is

required to meet the I/O adapter requirements.

How many racks units (EIA) are required?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 10

Question No. 3

A customer requires that each client partition have access to two different VLANs. VLAN tagging will NOT be used in the environment.

There will be four client partitions, each of which will be connected to VLAN1 and VLAN2.

There will be two VIOS.

Redundant Ethernet connections will be accomplished using the Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) and dual VIOS.

What is the minimum number of Ethernet ports that will be required in each VIOS?

• A. 8
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 2

Question No. 4

Which of the following statements is true regarding Dynamic Logical Partitioning (DLPAR)?

• A. In a disaster, it will immediately move active LPARs from a local system to a remote system, over the
• B. In a disaster, it will immediately move active LPARs from a local system to another local system, using a common SAN, with only a pause in service.
• C. It enables the relocation of resources such as CPU and memory between LPARs as required, without an interruption in service.
• D. It will automatically allocate an unlicensed processor to an LPAR to replace one that has reached the

Question No. 5

A customer would like to deploy a new application that requires 7 day by 24 hour availability.

What advantage does the Power System E980 have versus the Power System S924 to satisfy their

requirement?

• A. PCIe hot plug adapters
• B. Soft error protection, recovery and self-healing
• C. Active Memory Mirroring
• D. Chipkill memory

Question No. 1

What can a general purpose CP on the LinuxONE Rockhopper II or Emperor II be used for?

• A. Geographically Dispersed Parallel Sysplex (GDPS)
• B. Secure Service Container (SSC)
• C. IBM Db2 Analytics Accelerator (IDAA)
• D. Dynamic Provision Manager (DPM)

Question No. 2

Which of the following planning considerations is required when ordering the 16U reserved feature?

• A. Plan for the number of rack-mounted disks.
• B. Order the number of I/O cables that will be needed.
• C. Plan for the number of power cords required.
• D. Order a MES for the third or fourth PCIe+ I/O drawer.

Question No. 3

A client is concerned about their x86 database I/O response time. Further analysis reveals significant I/O wait delay.

How is the IBM Z architecture better equipped than the x86 architecture to address this specific issue?

• A. It leverages the VRIO (VectoR I/O) to control I/O wait.
• B. It leverages zllP processors to speed-up I/O wait.
• C. It leverages the I/O subsystem to manage I/O wait
• D. It leverages the VIO (Virtual I/O) to eliminate I/O wait.

Question No. 4

A customer is interested in IBM Linux ONE as a platform for their new cloud-based application infrastructure. A sizing exercise has shown that one Linux ONE Emperor II machine (in LM2 configuration) is sufficient for their expected workload, but the customer is concerned about putting all the application workload on a single frame.

Which set of Linux ONE features can the technical specialist remind the customer about, to help to relieve their concern?

• A. Processor sparing, I/O redundancy, RAIM memory
• B. CPACF, I/O redundancy, Capacity on Demand
• C. RAIM memory, Capacity on Demand, SIMD
• D. Processor sparing, SIMD, CPACF

Question No. 5

Which IBM Cloud offering relies on Secure Service Container (SSC) for its security?

• A. IBM Block chain Platform
• B. IBM Cloud Dev Ops
• C. IBM Cloud Provisioning and Management
• D. IBM Cloud Secure Virtualization

Question No. 1

An administrator has a requirement to export XML and flat files from a publish channel to a specific directory location.

Which system property will need to be modified to contain the location value?

• A. mxe.int.globaldir
• B. mxe.int.intglobaldir
• C. mxe.int.meaglobaldir
• D. mxe.maximo.globaldir

Question No. 2

A company wants to attach documents to records in Maximo. The documents are to be stored on a local file share that the Maximo Application Servers (JVMs) have access to.

Which of these tasks must be performed?

• A. Enable attached documents from the Organizations application.
• B. Set mxe.docink doctypes.defpath in the Documents application.
• C. Set mxe.doclink.doctypes.defpath in the System Properties application.
• D. Enable attached documents from the Database Configuration application.

Question No. 3

A company is deploying Maximo and will have Application Servers (JVMs) dedicated to run Cron jobs.

What is the function of these Application Servers (JVMs)?

• A. To run scheduled tasks
• B. To run scheduled integration exports.
• C. To run scheduled SMTP server updates.
• D. To run scheduled workflow assignments.

Question No. 4

A company is migrating configuration data from a development environment to a test environment using Migration Manager.

Which options are valid for the target type? (Choose two)

• A. File
• B. Database
• C. FTP Server
• D. JMS Queue
• E. Web Service

Question No. 5

One of the organizations within a company does business in two currencies and has established a second base currency.

What must also be defined for this organization?

• A. Valid financial period
• B. Second chat of account
• C. Valid exchange rate for the currencies
• D. Chart of account for exchange rate variances

Question No. 1

A Byzantine failure is the loss of a system service due to a Byzantine fault in systems that requires________.

What is required?

• A. Consensus
• B. Crypthography
• C. Bandwidth
• D. Availability

Question No. 2

You currently using the Metamask Chrome plugin and you see a selection for Etherescan in the plugin.

What is Etherscan used for?

• A. A search engine that allows users to easily lookup, confirm and validate transaction that have taken place on the Ethereum Blockchain
• B. A search engine that allows users to easily lookup, confirm and validate transaction that have taken place on the Bitcoin Blockchain
• C. A search engine that allows users to easily lookup, confirm and validate transaction that have taken place on the Ethereum and Tokens Blockchain
• D. A search engine that allows users to easily lookup, confirm and validate transaction that have taken place on any Blockchain

Question No. 3

SHA-1 is the most commonly used SHA algorithm, and produces a ______-byte hash value(size).

• A. 256
• B. 128
• C. 32
• D. 20

Question No. 4

What is a logic gate in electronics and computer science?

• A. A logic gate usually takes in 2 inputs and gives out 1 output. The inputs and outputs are binary values, meaning they can be both 1 and 0.
• B. A logic gate usually takes in 3 inputs and gives out 2 output. The inputs and outputs are binary values, meaning they can be 1 or 0.
• C. A logic gate usually takes in 2 inputs and gives out 6 output. The inputs and outputs are binary values, meaning they can be both 1 and 0.
• D. A logic gate usually takes in 2 inputs and gives out 1 output. The inputs and outputs are binary values, meaning they can be 1 or 0.

Question No. 5

The key difference between encryption and hashing is that encrypted strings can be reversed back into their original decrypted form if you have the right key?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE

Question No. 1

Question-Type: FILL IN THE BLANKS

Question-Title:____________ is the tendency health care practitioners to do more testing and to provide more care for patients than might otherwise be necessary to protect themselves against potential litigation.

Question No. 2

Requiring providers to have their capital expenditures preapproved by an independent state agency to avoid unnecessary duplication of services is referred to as:

• A. Preapproval certifications and opinions
• B. Preapproved payments
• C. Certificate of need
• D. State service reviews

Question No. 3

Gatekeepers requiring a patient to obtain a referral from his or her primary care physician, the gatekeeper, before assign a specialist.

• A. True
• B. False

Question No. 4

Which one of the following is NOT the factor of Uninsured?

• A. Health insurance premiums becoming too costly
• B. Requiring patients to pay for the part of their own care-up
• C. Individuals being screened out of insurance policies
• D. Employers feeling they cannot afford to continue to provide health insurance as a

Question No. 5

Concurrent review states that:

• A. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.
• B. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement discharge planning.
• C. Planning appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is not in the hospital and try to implement preadmission planning.
• D. Monitoring appropriateness and medical necessity of a hospital stay while the patient is in the hospital and implementing discharge planning.

Question No. 1

Universal Container wants to measure the efficient of its Contact Center.

Which three metrics should the contact center manager analyze?

• A. Number of Closed cases on first call
• B. Average Number of days to close cases
• C. Number of open cases per day
• D. Number of cases escalated
• E. Number of new customers added

Question No. 2

What method can NOT be leveraged to capture Cases in addition to via the Case tab?

• A. Email to Case
• B. Chatter feeds
• C. Customer Portal
• D. Self Service Portal

Question No. 3

When migrating data from an older system to a new one, what steps should be taken? Choose 2 answers.

• A. Data Cleansing
• B. Data Normalization
• C. Activate data validation rules
• D. Data mapping

Question No. 4

A Service Rep transfers a Live Agent Chat to another Rep.

Which two things will happened?

• A. The Customer is shown the new Rep's name
• B. Both Service Reps can chat with the customer
• C. The chat transcripts and case are transferred
• D. The Customer doesn't know they were transferred

Question No. 5

Universal Containers plans to migrate data into SFDC from a legacy system. Which step should be taken before performing the migration of the data (Choose 2)?

• A. Normalize database
• B. Perform data cleaning
• C. Enable data validation rules
• D. Develop data map

Question No. 1

The Java component SLD data supplier is deployed and started for the SAP NetWeaver AS Java server. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

• A. True
• B. False

Question No. 2

A message type can be used for both ... and ... service interfaces.

Choose the correct answer.

• A. outbound, inbound
• B. aggregated, total
• C. outbound, external outbound mapping

Question No. 3

Which of the following technical system types can you enter in the SLD? Select all that apply. Choose the correct answers.

• A. AS ABAP
• B. AS JAVA
• C. TREX
• D. Third-party systems

Question No. 4

SAP uses core data types and ... data types to create the signature of enterprise services.

Choose the correct answer.

• A. Aggregated
• B. Global
• C. Freely modeled

Question No. 5

You browse for services in the ... Choose the correct answer

• A. Enterprise Service Workplace
• B. Enterprise Service Repository
• C. Enterprise Repository Widgets

Question No. 1

SEO best practice states that if a user were to see a URI and none of the content on the page, they should be able to describe what the page is. Which AEM feature allows you to control a URL while maintaining SEO integrity?

• A. Use the link Externalizer tool to set a global URL rule for your site
• B. Configure your dispatcher to redirect users to SEO enabled pages only
• C. Use the Move command to move the page
• D. Use the vanity URL field of the page property to configure the URL

Question No. 2

How can an author determine the number of Language Copies for a given page?

• A. The Language Copies will be displayed in the page properties
• B. The Language Copies will be displayed in the Filters section
• C. The Language Copies will be displayed in References section
• D. The Language Copies will be displayed in Manage Publications

Question No. 3

As an asset manager, how could you best ensure that only valid metadata is shown for a particular asset type?

• A. Use cascading metadata rules to hide or show fields based on types
• B. Use a single schema with only mandatory metadata fields
• C. Define a metadata schema for a type and apply it to a specific folder
• D. Create a schema for assets based on their MIME type

Question No. 4

A company foresees the structure of page templates will change frequently for its pages. Why is it important to use editable templates instead of static templates?

• A. Allows you to add initial components to existing pages
• B. The Column Control component is only available for editable templates
• C. Editable templates are replicated faster to a publish server
• D. A dynamic connection is maintained between the page and the template on existing pages

Question No. 5

A client has approached you and said that their renditions are not appearing for an asset recently uploaded. As an author, how would you troubleshoot this issue?

• A. Check the Health Checks
• B. Check the failed workflows
• C. Check the properties of the asset
• D. Examine the timeline view

Question No. 1

Which options are the Cisco user-based license models?

• A. Cisco UWL and Cisco UCL
• B. Cisco WUL and Cisco CUL
• C. Cisco Flex Plans
• D. Cisco User Integration and Adoption Plans

Question No. 2

How long do new workforce employees stay with a company on average?

• A. 5 to 10 years
• B. 9 to 15 years
• C. 3 years or less
• D. 3 to 5 years

Question No. 3

Which feature of SWSS eliminates the need to repurchase software licenses?

• A. software updates
• B. expert support
• C. license portability
• D. license updates

Question No. 4

Which Cisco product is a premised-based, cloud-managed telephone platform that targets the SMB market for partner recurring revenue?

• A. Cisco Hybrid Media Services
• B. Cisco Business Edition 6000
• C. Cisco Spark Flex Plan
• D. Cisco Business Edition 4000

Question No. 5

Which Cisco UCL plans support all Cisco user devices?

• A. Basic and Enhanced
• B. Enhanced and Enhanced Plus
• C. Essential and Enhanced Plus
• D. Essential and Basic

Question No. 1

When you are analyzing the current state of a business, what are two purposes of business process

modeling? (Choose two.)

• A. to identify inefficient or unnecessary processes
• B. to identify technology process improvements
• C. to define current state service procurement processes
• D. to understand the future state of the business
• E. to determine the feasibility of future state processes

Question No. 2

You use the operating model canvas to expand which part of the business model canvas?

• A. bottom
• B. right side
• C. top
• D. left side

Question No. 3

A customer wants to invest in a reliable network, data center, and collaboration solution with no ROI

investigation.

Which engagement maturity level is appropriate for this customer?

• A. Partial business engagement
• B. Business-first engagement
• C. Multi-domain engagement
• D. Domain-specific engagement

Question No. 4

Which tool evaluates the ability of the business to execute on solutions?

• A. customer journey map
• B. business motivation model
• C. business roadmap
• D. internal and external influencers chart

Question No. 5

Which two scenarios does business systems modeling address? (Choose two.)

• A. consumption and speed of replenishment of new business systems
• B. to model the various systems that are associated with an organization
• C. exchange of information between different events IT systems that the organization relies on
• D. consumption model that ensures that customers get what they want, at the value they want, and when they want it
• E. helping organizations define what they do

Question No. 1

Because a firewall examines every packet in a session, a firewall can detect application ________?

• A. shifts
• B. groups
• C. filters
• D. errors

Question No. 2

Application block pages can be enabled for which applications?

• A. any
• B. MGT portbased
• C. nonTCP/IP
• D. webbased

Question No. 3

An Interface Management Profile can be attached to which two interface types? (Choose two.)

• A. Loopback
• B. Virtual Wire
• C. Layer 2
• D. Layer 3
• E. Tap

Question No. 4

AppID running on a firewall identifies applications using which three methods? (Choose three.)

• A. Application signatures
• B. Known protocol decoders
• C. WildFire lookups
• D. Program heuristics
• E. PANDB lookups

Question No. 5

An Antivirus Security Profile specifies Actions and WildFire Actions. Wildfire Actions enable you to configure the firewall to perform which operation?

• A. Block traffic when a WildFire virus signature is detected.
• B. Download new antivirus signatures from WildFire.
• C. Upload traffic to WildFire when a virus is suspected.
• D. Delete packet data when a virus is suspected.